Wednesday, July 11, 2007

markers question

4 Comments:

Anonymous Anonymous said...

is the probability that III-1 will develop huntington's is 0%? I am having a difficult time with this whole probability thing, can you please calrify it for me Pam

9:31 AM  
Anonymous Anonymous said...

I don't know whether it is 0% or not because from the southern blots it shows that in order to be affected you must have both morphs right. So, the father didn't give us his genome to play with and we only the mother and the child's blots, we see that the mother has both morphs and therefore will develop Huntington's, but the child has only the bottom morph. So, can we conclude that the child cannot develop huntingtons? So the probability is 0?

12:06 PM  
Anonymous Anonymous said...

We could conclude so if we knew that EVERY time that we inherit the bottom morph from the father's side of the family, we would also get the huntington allele. However, we know that the RFLP locus is 3mu away from the gene...which gives us 3% recombinant gametes....


Cheers,

Pam

PS: we don't have the father's RFLP pattern but, as well-trained geneticists, we can deduce it from his parents' and his daughter's....

3:26 PM  
Anonymous Anonymous said...

Pam, I still don't understand why. Can you please give me a logical step by step to figure this q out please. THNX:)

10:03 PM  

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